The Standard Code Test 6

The recommendations submitted by the reference committee _____.
1. are often decisive
2. are advisory
3. are one set of ideas
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Accurate, complete, and concise minutes are of _______.
1. vital importance
2. some importance
3. minor importance
4. no importance
Minutes are ____ of an organization.
1. the official history
2. the legal record
3. an invaluable reference
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Who is responsible for the minutes?
1. The elected secretary.
2. The president.
3. The general membership.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
To whom can the secretary delegate responsibility about the minutes?
1. Nobody
2. An ad hoc committee.
3. A standing committee
4. The board of directors
Who approves the minutes?
1. The body for which the minutes are taken.
2. The board.
3. The executive committee.
4. The general membership of the organization.
The minutes are _____.
1. kept by the secretary
2. open to inspection by the members
3. not open to inspection by non-members
4. All of the other answers are correct.
When should the minutes be prepared?
1. Right after the meeting.
2. Right before the next meeting.
3. During the meeting.
4. None of the other answers is correct.
Who is responsible for reading the minutes to the assembly?
1. The secretary
2. The presiding officer
3. The parliamentarian
4. A member chosen in turn
Minutes ____.
1. should be read at the next meeting
2. must be read at the next meeting
3. are not read at any meeting
4. do not have to be read at any meeting
Corrections of the minutes are usually approved by ____.
1. unanimous consent
2. a majority vote
3. two-thirds vote
4. No vote is ever required
Mistakes in the minutes are corrected by _____.
1. writing them in the margin if minor
2. putting them in an appendix if major
3. referencing that they are corrected in the current minutes
4. All of the other answers are correct.
When may corrections be made to the minutes?
1. Only at the meeting at which the minutes are presented.
2. At any meeting.
3. Only before the secretary reads them.
4. Only at the meeting for which the minutes are for.
What happens if there is a standing committee on minutes?
1. The committee corrects the minutes.
2. The committee reports to the assembly.
3. Upon certification by the committee, the assembly can approve by general consent.
4. All of the other answers is correct.
What corrections can be made of approved minutes without approval?
1. Spelling and punctuation.
2. The wording of motions.
3. The recording of votes.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Minutes can be approved by _____.
1. general consent
2. majority vote
3. no objection to them
4. All of the other answers are correct.
When the minutes are approved by the assembly, the secretary _____.
1. writes “Approved” at the end of them
2. enters the date
3. signs them
4. All of the other answers are correct.
What is included in the minutes?
1. All actions and proceedings.
2. The date, hour, and place of the meeting.
3. The type of meeting.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
What is included in the minutes?
1. Who the presiding officer was.
2. Information about a quorum being present.
3. If a special meeting, the notice or call of the meeting.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
What is included in the minutes?
1. The wording of each motion.
2. The name of the person who made the motion.
3. What happened to the motion.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
What is included in the minutes?
1. The exact wording of the final version of the motion.
2. The vote when by ballot or counted division.
3. How each member voted when voting by roll call.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Reports are recorded in the minutes _____.
1. by the name of the report, name of presenter, and action taken
2. by having the entire report in the minutes
3. by having the executive summary of the report in the minutes
4. by the secretary summarizing every report
If a letter is presented, the minutes should say ____.
1. what it was about
2. what was done about it
3. not the exact wording of the letter
4. All of the other answers are correct.
For a committee, _____.
1. the minutes are always kept by a secretary
2. the minutes should be verbose
3. the minutes are not related to the final report
4. None of the other answers is correct.
For a hearing, the minutes ____.
1. summarize the facts reported
2. do not list who spoke
3. only reflect what supports the committee’s position
4. None of the other answers is correct.
Which of the following should be included in the minutes?
1. Interpretations and comments
2. Descriptive phrases about discussion
3. Criticism of another member
4. None of the other answers is correct.
The minutes of an organization should _____.
1. be put into a suitable book for storage
2. be made available as needed
3. include the bylaws, charters, and rules of the organization
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Which of the following ranks the highest?
1. Law
2. Charter
3. Bylaws
4. Parliamentary Authority
How many basic types of charters are there?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 1
Who grants a charter of incorporation?
1. A government
2. An organization
3. A parent organization
4. All of the other answers are correct.
What is another name for a charter from the government?
1. Articles of incorporation
2. Articles of confederation
3. Charter of incorporation
4. None of the other answers is correct.
What is usually in a charter for a non profit organization?
1. The name
2. The address
3. A statement of purpose
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Who needs to approve amendments to a charter issued by a government?
1. The membership of the organization
2. The government that granted it
3. Bodies listed in the charter
4. All of the other answers are correct.
If a charter is granted by a parent organization, the association is ______.
1. a sub unit of the parent organization
2. is subject to the rules of the parent organization governing it
3. is subject to the bylaws of the parent organization referring to it
4. All of the other answers are correct.
If an organization has both a constitution and bylaws, _____.
1. the constitution outranks the bylaws
2. the bylaws have a higher vote for amending
3. the constitution gives the details to the bylaws
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Bylaws should _____.
1. be concise
2. contain detailed rules
3. be very verbose
4. cover every possible situation in detail
A provision in one set of bylaws _____.
1. may not work for other organizations
2. will work for any organization
3. will not work for any other organization
4. cannot be in another set of bylaws for another organization
When bylaws are first considered, they are debated ____.
1. section by section
2. one sentence at a time
3. as a whole only
4. article by article
When debating the bylaws, _____ are voted on.
1. amendments
2. each section
3. each article
4. All of the other answers are correct.
The vote required to adopt the initial bylaws is _____.
1. a majority
2. two-thirds
3. unanimous
4. No vote is required.
The bylaws go into effect ____.
1. immediately
2. at a time provided for in the bylaws
3. at a time provided for in a proviso
4. All of the other answers are correct.
When should bylaws be amended?
1. Only after they have had a chance to work.
2. Immediately even if only a minor change.
3. Each time a new idea for them comes up.
4. Constantly as it is important to keep them current.
Amendments that are not vital should be _____.
1. considered when several have been accumulated
2. passed as quickly as possible
3. implemented without passing them
4. None of the other answers is correct.
In the bylaws, there should be provisions for _____.
1. how and who can submit amendments
2. the form of amendments
3. the date by which amendments are to be received
4. All of the other answers are correct.
In the bylaws, there should be provisions for _____.
1. the notice required to amend the bylaws
2. the vote required to amend the bylaws
3. how amendments are to be submitted
4. All of the other answers are correct.
When proposing amendments to bylaws, _____.
1. organizations often have very different rules
2. there is only one way that it can be done
3. only one procedure is considered proper
4. None of the other answers is correct.
Who cannot usually propose amendments for State, National, and International groups?
1. Individual members
2. Constituent groups
3. The board of the parent group
4. All of the other answers are correct.
When amendments to the bylaws are proposed for State, National, or International groups, _____.
1. they are published with the bylaw committee’s recommendation
2. notice is given as to when they will be considered and voted on
3. notice is given as to when hearing will be held
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Amendments should be worded _____.
1. so they can be directly inserted in the bylaws
2. to tell the type of wording changes that will be necessary
3. without reference to the language of the current bylaws
4. All of the other answers are correct.
When an amendment to the bylaws is being considered, it may be amended ____.
1. by primary and secondary amendments
2. by primary amendments only
3. by secondary amendments only
4. It may not be amended.
What vote is needed to amend an amendment to the bylaws?
1. Majority
2. Two-thirds
3. Same as for amending the bylaws
4. Majority of the voters present
If proper notice of a bylaw amendment has been given, _____.
1. that subject covered by the amendment is open to change
2. any change must be germane to the section
3. the topic of change must be implied in the notice
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Restrictions on amendments can be ____.
1. in the bylaws
2. in the standing rules
3. in the orders of the day
4. All of the other answers are correct.
If a proposed amendment needs additional changes to be implemented, _____.
1. these can be proposed at the meeting
2. these can only be proposed if mentioned in the notice
3. the proposed amendment cannot be passed
4. None of the other answers is correct.
If a proposed amendment conflicts with another part of the bylaws, ____.
1. the section of the bylaws can be amended
2. the proposed amendment cannot be passed
3. the conflict is allowed to exist
4. None of the other answers is correct.
The vote required to amend the bylaws is _____.
1. as defined in the bylaws
2. a majority vote
3. a two-thirds vote
4. a majority of the entire membership
When a large number of changes are made it is called _____.
1. a revision
2. a modification
3. an alternation
4. a simplification
What vote is required for a revision?
1. Majority
2. Two-thirds
3. Majority of the entire membership
4. Plurality
Interpretation of the bylaws is ______.
1. sometimes assigned to a committee or the board
2. the job of the presiding officer at all times
3. always done only by the assembly
4. done only by the parliamentarian
A rule that is only for a limited situation is _____.
1. a special rule
2. a standing rule
3. a general rule
4. a limited rule
Rules designed to be in force until they are repealed or changed are called ____.
1. standing rules
2. special rules
3. general rules
4. limited rules
Standing and special rules are adopted by ______.
1. a majority vote
2. a two-thirds vote
3. a majority of the entire membership vote
4. a majority of the members present vote
Standing and special rules are amended or abolished by _____.
1. a majority vote
2. a two-thirds vote
3. a majority of the entire membership vote
4. a majority of the members present vote
The parliamentary authority should be provided for in _____.
1. the bylaws
2. the standing rules
3. the charter
4. the special rules
The details of how things are done are provided for in _____.
1. adopted procedures
2. the bylaws
3. the charter
4. the standing rules
An organization can adjust the rules _____.
1. for conducting the current business
2. to get around the bylaws
3. to ignore the charter
4. All of the other answers are correct.
An organization can adjust the rules _____.
1. to complete an election
2. to avoid repeated revoting
3. to conduct pending business
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Policy ______.
1. set the philosophy of the organization
2. take care of recurring problems
3. determine what can be adopted
4. All of the other answers are correct.
When an organization uses policies as guiding principles, ______.
1. they should be provided for in the bylaws
2. there should be rules for reviewing them
3. the vote for them should be in the bylaws
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Where should policies be included?
1. In the bylaws
2. In the charter
3. In the articles of incorporation
4. None of the other answers is correct.
Which of the following is not true about a small organization?
1. There is no need to have professional help in setting up financial records.
2. Every organization needs to have an accounting system.
3. A good financial system saves time and money.
4. All of the other answers are true.
At each meeting, the treasurer reports on _____.
1. income
2. expenditures
3. unusual events
4. All of the other answers are correct.
The treasurer should make a complete report _____.
1. annually
2. monthly
3. quarterly
4. semi-annually
If there is a financial committee it should report at least _____.
1. annually
2. monthly
3. quarterly
4. semi-annually
An audit should be conducted at least _____.
1. annually
2. monthly
3. quarterly
4. semi-annually
Who should not be involved in picking the auditor?
1. Treasurer
2. President
3. Recording Secretary
4. Programming chair
How many types of auditor’s reports are standard?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1
The short-form of the auditor’s reports consists of _____ paragraph(s)?
1. two
2. one
3. three
4. four
The long-form of the auditor’s report _____.
1. contains the same information of the short form
2. gives a detailed explanation of items
3. is more expensive and usually not needed
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Standard financial protection items include ____.
1. adoption of a budget
2. requiring authorization for expenditure
3. an annual audit
4. All of the other answers are correct.
For most organization, a budget is _____.
1. an estimate
2. authorization to collect and spend money
3. a financial guide
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Expenditures greater than that in the budget _____.
1. always need special authorization
2. cannot be allowed
3. are fine as the budget is an estimate
4. None of the other answers is correct.
If an authorized person makes a purchase on behalf of the organization even if unauthorized, the organization ____.
1. must pay the bill
2. can only pay the bill if authorized
3. can only pay the bill if pre-authorized
4. may not pay the bill
A committee can only spend money _____.
1. as it is authorized
2. that is needed to carry out its function
3. as the chair of the committee sees necessary
4. None of the other answers is correct.
In a meeting to form an organization, ______.
1. a small group should pre-meet to plan out what to do
2. a small group should plan who to nominate to head the mass meeting
3. if more than one person is nominated as chair, the first to receive a majority is elected
4. All of the other answers are correct.
At a mass meeting, who explains the purpose of the meeting?
1. A member of the planning committee
2. The chair of the meeting
3. Anybody who gets the floor
4. The purpose has to be decided upon by the members
At the first meeting of the proposed organization, ______.
1. a resolution to create a temporary society may be proposed
2. a temporary society must be formed by resolution
3. no resolution can be passed
4. None of the other answers is correct.
At a mass meeting, a resolution to form a permanent society _____.
1. may be proposed and passed
2. may be proposed but it cannot be passed until the second meeting
3. can be proposed and passed if the planning committee agrees
4. cannot be proposed if it is the first meeting of the group
When does a permanent society come into existence?
1. With the adoption of the bylaws
2. With the election of officers
3. With a resolution to create a permanent society
4. A combination of all of the other answers.
If members want a charter from an already existing society, ____.
1. a committee is appointed to carry out the procedure
2. the officers carry out the procedure
3. the staff carries out the procedure
4. All of the other answers are correct.
A temporary society lasts _____.
1. until its task is carried out
2. more than one meeting if needed
3. only one meeting in some cases
4. All of the other answers are correct.
A permanent society is designed to last ______.
1. permanently
2. for a long period of time
3. until it is dissolved
4. All of the other answers are correct.
A society that is unincorporated and governed only by its own rules is _____.
1. an association
2. a society
3. a company
4. a partnership
An association can freely ____.
1. own property
2. get tax breaks
3. receive gifts
4. None of the other answers is correct.
How many reasons are listed for incorporation?
1. 7
2. 6
3. 5
4. 4
If a society is incorporated, it is _____.
1. protected by state law
2. able to make use of the unified resources of the members
3. able to own property in its own rights
4. All of the other answers are correct.
If an organization is incorporated, _____.
1. the officers are protected from personal liability
2. the officers are personally liable for the organization
3. the officers are still partially liable for the organization
4. None of the other answers is correct.
If a society is incorporated, it is governed by _____.
1. state law
2. its charter
3. its bylaws
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Who should be consulted when incorporating a society?
1. An attorney
2. A parliamentarian
3. The IRS
4. All of the other answers is correct.
A society that is incorporated ______.
1. can still chose its own parliamentary authority
2. must adopt the parliamentary authority of the state
3. can only choose a parliamentary authority recognized by the state
4. cannot have a parliamentary authority
In general, a voluntary organization is _____.
1. a non-profit organization
2. a profit making organization
3. an incorporated organization
4. an unincorporated organization
A non-profit organization can _____.
1. not distribute profits to its members
2. reimburse members for expenses
3. pay salaries for services rendered
4. All of the other answers are correct.
A non-profit can use money received from its activities ____.
1. for purposes listed in the charter
2. as dividends to the membership
3. as a source of income for the members
4. A non-profit can not make money from its activities.
A non-profit that is not incorporated _____.
1. may apply for a tax exempt status from state and federal taxes
2. may apply for a tax exempt status only from state taxes
3. may apply for a tax exempt status only from federal taxes
4. may not apply for a tax exempt status from state and federal taxes
A member of an organization has ______ with the organization.
1. an implicit contract
2. a written contract
3. no contract
4. an oral contract
A person who joins an organization _____.
1. accepts it as is
2. has the right to demand that it change immediately
3. is not bound by anything he does not like
4. must never work to change it
An organization _____.
1. may change the rights and privileges of membership
2. cannot change its dues structure
3. has a contract with the membership that allows no change of benefits
4. None of the other answers is correct.
Changes in the rights and benefits can be made based on _____.
1. the bylaws and parliamentary law
2. the standing rules and the bylaws
3. the standing rules and parliamentary law
4. They cannot be changed.
A member has ______ in relationship to the organization.
1. associational rights
2. property rights
3. parliamentary rights
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Which of the following is not a parliamentary right?
1. To speak on all questions
2. To be sent notices
3. To attend meetings
4. To present motions
Which of the following is not a parliamentary right?
1. Inability to inspect records of the organization
2. To vote
3. To nominate people for office
4. To be a candidate for office
Which of the following is not a parliamentary right?
1. To be expelled without a hearing
2. To insist on the enforcement of the rules
3. To resign from office.
4. To receive the latest version of the bylaws
What may affect the rights of members?
1. The type of membership
2. The decision of the president
3. The sponsor of the member
4. None of the other answers is correct.
If basic rights of a member are violated, _____.
1. legal action may be used
2. procedural avenues within the organization should be used
3. the member has the right to object
4. All of the other answers are correct.
How many fundamental rights of an organization are listed?
1. 8
2. 13
3. 4
4. 1
Which of the following violates a fundamental right of an organization?
1. It must accept any and all who apply for membership even if they don’t really qualify.
2. It holds an event for which the organization was established.
3. It changes the reasons for its existence following the procedures established by the state.
4. It revises its bylaws.
Which of the following violates a fundamental right of an organization?
1. Its officers are selected only by one person and that cannot be changed.
2. It hires employees to carry out day to day activities under guidance of the officers.
3. It expels a member who has caused harm to the organization.
4. It buys its clubhouse.
To exercise their rights, members _____.
1. must follow the rules of the society
2. demand their rights any time they want to exercise them
3. can only do what the officers say they can do
4. must go immediately to the courts.
When the rights of a minority conflict with the rights of a majority, _____.
1. the majority will prevail
2. the minority will prevail
3. neither side will prevail
4. both are right and will prevail
Members have the right to _____.
1. oppose ideas
2. oppose the organization
3. oppose only ideas the majority oppose
4. oppose only minor issues
The proper place to have procedures related to discipline is ____.
1. in the bylaws
2. in the charter
3. in special rules
4. in standing rules
What is an inherent right of any organization?
1. To discipline a member for a valid cause.
2. To suspend a member for any reason.
3. To expel a member for disagreeing with the officers.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Which is an appropriate form of discipline?
1. Requiring a member to appear before the board
2. Requiring a member to pay a fine for some action
3. Suspending a member from membership
4. All of the other answers are correct.
A membership can be terminated for ____.
1. violation of an important duty
2. violating a rule in the bylaws with a stated penalty of expulsion
3. failing to work within the framework of the organization
4. All of the other answers are correct.
If a member fails to fulfill his duties as a citizen, _____.
1. the organization may expel him
2. the organization may not do anything
3. the organization can only fine the member
4. the organization can only suspend them if there is a written rule about it
What are the primary requisites for expulsion?
1. Due notice and a fair hearing.
2. A fair hearing and a trial by their peers.
3. Due notice and a trial before the Executive Committee.
4. None of the other answers is correct.
How many essential steps are there in imposing a severe discipline
1. 6
2. 5
3. 7
4. 3
Which of the following is not a step in expelling a member?
1. Shunning the member
2. Charging the member
3. Investigating the charges
4. Sending proper notification to the accused
Which of the following is not a step in expelling a member?
1. Publicizing the decision of the hearing committee to the general public.
2. Holding hearings at which the accused can defend himself.
3. Deciding the matter of guilt within a reasonable amount of time.
4. Deciding upon the penalty by a vote of the membership.
A member can resign ____.
1. at any time they desire
2. only if the dues are paid up
3. only if all obligations are met
4. All of the other answers are correct.
A resignation _____.
1. All of the other answers are correct.
2. usually becomes effective immediately
3. can become effective at a future time if the member so specifies
4. does not need to be voted on
A resignation ____.
1. does not need to be written
2. cannot not be implied for any reason
3. does not take effect for an office until a new person is in office
4. All of the other answers are correct.
A resignation can be withdrawn ____.
1. if the date of it has not arrived
2. if it is for immediately but has not been accepted
3. if the office has not been filled yet
4. All of the other answers are correct.
An officer who resigns ____.
1. is still liable for actions before the resignation
2. is no longer liable for performance in the office
3. is liable for events connected to the office until a new officer is elected or appointed
4. None of the other answers is correct.
The executive director is responsible to ____.
1. the board
2. the annual assembly
3. the general assembly
4. the president
The executive director is _____.
1. All of the other answers are correct.
2. an administrator
3. a planning specialist
4. a business specialist
A good executive officer is ____.
1. None of the other answers is correct.
2. in the limelight all the time
3. working out front where all can see him
4. taking most of the credit for what is done
The job of the executive secretary includes ____.
1. directing the administration of the organization
2. employing staff without consulting the board
3. performing only duties that the president approves
4. All of the other answers are correct.
An organization that handles a lot of money needs _____.
1. an accountant
2. a banker
3. a teller
4. None of the other answers is correct.
A consultant for non-profit organizations should have skills in _____.
1. All of the other answers are correct.
2. communication techniques
3. tax exemptions
4. parliamentary procedure
How many situations are listed where an organization needs an attorney?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 13
4. 10
Which of the following is not a reason to use an attorney?
1. Deciding on the type of legal structure to have.
2. Incorporating the organization.
3. Entering into important contracts.
4. All of the other answers are ones where an attorney is needed.
Which of the following is not a reason to use an attorney?
1. Electing new officers.
2. The merger or dissolution of the organization.
3. Expelling a member.
4. Selling or purchasing real property.
Who usually chooses the parliamentarian?
1. The president
2. The assembly
3. The board of directors
4. The executive director
Who does the parliamentarian work with?
1. The president
2. Boards and committees
3. The membership
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Where is the parliamentarian during meetings?
1. Sitting next to the chair
2. In the audience
3. The parliamentarian does not attend meetings
4. None of the other answers is correct.
During the meeting, the parliamentarian _____.
1. advises the chair
2. makes rulings as to parliamentary procedure
3. answers questions put by the members
4. All of the other answers are correct.
With a good parliamentarian, the chair mainly _____.
1. focuses on the issues before the assembly
2. keeps detailed track of procedure
3. worries about potential procedural problems
4. All of the other answers are correct.
The parliamentarian _____.
1. is there to help the members accomplish what they want
2. represents any group he belongs to
3. advocates causes he supports
4. All of the other answers are correct.
The parliamentarian _____.
1. gives an opinion as to how the rules apply in a situation
2. explains in detail why he thinks the rules apply in one manner
3. quotes from the parliamentary authority
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Parliamentarians preside _____.
1. in some difficult situations with the permission of the assembly
2. whenever the chair wants them to
3. when there is no difficulty
4. Parliamentarians never preside at meetings.
Parliamentarians sometimes preside _____.
1. at the business part of a convention
2. if the regular chair is well experienced
3. when the parliamentarian wants to have the right to vote
4. All of the other answers are correct.
The term “Robert’s Rules” means _____.
1. Robert’s Rules of Order
2. parliamentary procedure
3. the meeting will follow standard procedures
4. All of the other answers are correct.
How many versions of Robert’s Rules of Order are there?
1. Many
2. 1
3. 10
4. 4
How many meanings of “adjourn” exist in Robert’s Rules of Order?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 4
What does The Standard Code call a meeting that was temporarily adjourned and reconvened?
1. A continued meeting
2. An adjourned meeting
3. A resumed meeting
4. A reconvened meeting
The Standard Code uses what instead of Call for the Orders of the Day?
1. Informal language pointing out the problem.
2. Call for the Orders of the Day.
3. The agenda must be returned to.
4. None of the other answers is correct.
The Standard Code uses what instead of Committee of the Whole?
1. Consider informally
2. Committee of the Whole
3. Special Committee
4. Ad hoc Committee
The Standard Code uses what instead of Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn?
1. Amend the motion to adjourn to state when to reconvene.
2. Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn.
3. Continued meetings are not allowed.
4. Adjourn
The Standard code uses what instead of Object to Consideration?
1. Another motion that postpones or kills a motion.
2. Object to Consideration
3. Point of Order
4. Resume Consideration
The Standard Code uses what instead of Postpone Indefinitely?
1. To Lay on the Table
2. To Extend Debate
3. Request to be allowed to speak more
4. All of the other answers are correct.
The Standard Codes uses what instead of Previous Question?
1. Close Debate and Vote Immediately
2. Previous Question
3. Question
4. None of the other answers are correct.
The Standard Code uses what instead of Quasi-Committee of the Whole?
1. Consider Informally
2. Quasi-Committee of the Whole
3. Consider Formally
4. Special Committee
What are the differences in The Standard Code about Reconsideration?
1. Any member can move it.
2. Only reconsideration can be debated
3. Only main motions can be reconsidered.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
The Standard Code uses what instead of Reconsider and Enter in the Minutes?
1. This idea is not permitted.
2. Reconsider and Enter in the Minutes.
3. Resume Consideration.
4. Take from the Table.
Which ranks higher – bylaws or parliamentary authority?
1. Bylaws
2. Parliamentary authority
3. They are of equal rank
4. They have no rank
If a procedure has been done by custom for a long time, ____.
1. it is the same as if it was a written rule
2. it has no valid standing
3. it can be challenged by any member
4. None of the other answers is correct.
Formality in a meeting _____.
1. can vary depending upon the need
2. needs to be always maintained
3. is not affected by the size of the group
4. All of the other answers are correct.
How can hostility be avoided?
1. By treating everybody fairly.
2. By supporting the majority in all cases.
3. By gaveling through controversial issues.
4. By ending debate when it becomes controversial
Who should end a discussion on a controversial subject?
1. The assembly by proper procedure.
2. The chair
3. The parliamentarian
4. None of the other answers is correct.
When recognizing speakers, _____.
1. the maker of the motion has the right to speak first
2. the first person to stand should be recognized
3. a person who has not spoken has preference over a person who has
4. All of the other answers are correct.
What should the chair do about a member who stands while another is speaking so that he can be recognized?
1. Not recognize him.
2. Recognize him if nobody else stands up quickly after the speaker is finished.
3. Recognize him but tell him not to do it again.
4. Recognize him as being the first up.
How is being a chair in a committee different from being a chair in an assembly?
1. The chair can make motions
2. The chair can partake in debate
3. Take sides in an issue while being fair to all
4. All of the other answers are correct.
How is procedure in a committee different from in an assembly?
1. More informal
2. Fully informal
3. Formality is the same
4. More formal
What is the major difference between debate in a committee and in an assembly?
1. Debate often precedes a motion
2. The motion must precede debate
3. Debate always precedes the motion
4. None of the other answers is correct.
Can a motion be explained before being made in an assembly?
1. Yes, but only a short explanation.
2. Yes, the motion should be fully explained in detail.
3. No, the mover is limited to the actual motion.
4. Yes, with some debate taking place.
General consent _____.
1. saves time by handling routine matters quickly
2. is a way of avoiding controversial matters
3. can slow down business
4. is not allowed in most bodies
What can be done if there is not a quorum present?
1. Attempts may be made to obtain a quorum.
2. The program may be heard.
3. Informal discussions may take place.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
If the assembly takes action when it is known that a quorum is not present, ____.
1. the action needs to be ratified later
2. if it is an emergency, it is not a problem
3. nothing that is done can be made acceptable
4. None of the other answers is correct.
If a quorum was present at the start but later lost, _____.
1. actions taken before the quorum was lost are valid
2. actions taken after the quorum was lost are valid
3. actions taken before the quorum was lost must be ratified
4. the entire meeting is invalid.
Why is an amendment voted on?
1. To approve what the final wording of a motion is.
2. There is no good reason to vote on amendments.
3. To make sure the mover of the motion is satisfied.
4. Amendments are not voted on.
When an amendment is pending, ____.
1. debate is limited to the amendment to avoid confusion
2. debate is permitted on the amendment and the main motion
3. no debate is permitted
4. debate is limited to the main motion
Can an amendment be amended?
1. Yes, but it is not recommended because it causes confusion.
2. A friendly amendment to an amendment can be easily handled.
3. Yes, and it is what is debated until voted on.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
How is a motion withdrawn?
1. By the mover alone until the chair has stated it.
2. By permission of the assembly after the chair has stated it.
3. By general consent usually after the chair has stated it.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
What can the mover of a motion do about the motion?
1. She can speak for it.
2. She can speak against it.
3. She can vote anyway that she wants to.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
For the minutes, _____.
1. only written minutes can be used
2. an audio tape can be used
3. a transcript can be used
4. All of the other answers are correct.
The treasurer’s report _____.
1. can be detailed
2. can be simple
3. should be in writing and then audited if it is the annual one
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Voting is ______.
1. usually by voice
2. often determined as to method by the chair
3. can be determined by a motion put to the assembly
4. All of the other answers is correct.
For an amendment, what vote is required?
1. Always a majority vote.
2. A two-thirds vote on the ruling by the chair.
3. A two-third vote if the motion needs a two-thirds vote.
4. None of the other answers is correct.
For a ballot vote to be unanimous, _____.
1. it must be unanimous
2. a two-third vote can make any ballot vote unanimous
3. a majority vote can make a ballot vote unanimous
4. No ballot vote can ever be unanimous.
What is recorded about the person who seconds a motion?
1. Nothing as seconding information is not recorded.
2. If the motion is an important one, the name of the member.
3. The name of the member.
4. The name of the member if an officer.
What can the chair properly do if he is uncertain as to what to do?
1. Ask the assembly for advice.
2. Ask the parliamentarian for advice.
3. Proceed in what he sees as the best way.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Which of the following is cumulative voting?
1. Casting all your votes for one instead of for different people if a number is to be elected.
2. Casting a single vote for one and not voting for others when a number is to be elected.
3. Organizing a group of people to vote for one candidate.
4. All of the other answers are forms of cumulative voting.
What is bullet voting?
1. Casting all your votes for one instead of for different people if a number is to be elected.
2. Casting a single vote for one and not voting for others when a number is to be elected.
3. Organizing a group of people to vote for one candidate.
4. All of the other answers are forms of bullet voting.
What is Texas voting?
1. Voting for the person or people you do not want elected.
2. It is another name for a voice vote.
3. Voting by counting off.
4. None of the other answers is correct.
Can any body meet by telephone?
1. Yes, if provided for in the bylaws or law.
2. Yes, if all the members agree.
3. Yes, if all members are given notice.
4. No, it is never possible.
How many people can a nominating committee nominate for a single office?
1. As many as they want unless the rules say otherwise.
2. Only one.
3. They must nominate two.
4. They must nominate all who submit their name.
Which of the following is a common mistake made by chairs?
1. Not making sure that the motion is clearly worded before stating it.
2. Taking unnecessary vote on non-controversial matters.
3. Cutting off debate by himself.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Which of the following is a common mistake made by chairs?
1. Refusing to allow a motion that the chair does not like to be made.
2. Not remaining impartial in debate.
3. Failure to stifle out-of-order remarks.
4. All of the other answers are correct.
Which of the following is a common mistake made by chairs?
1. Allowing too much informality so it detracts from the proceedings.
2. Failing to call for a final vote on an amended motion.
3. Failing to state the exact motion to be voted on before the vote.
4. All of the other answers are correct.

The Standard Code Test 6

Test using The Standard Code